Solution for 1 is what percent of 1679:

1:1679*100 =

(1*100):1679 =

100:1679 = 0.06

Now we have: 1 is what percent of 1679 = 0.06

Question: 1 is what percent of 1679?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1679 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1679}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1679}(1).

{x\%}={1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1679}{1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1}{1679}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.06\%}

Therefore, {1} is {0.06\%} of {1679}.

Solution for 1679 is what percent of 1:

1679:1*100 =

(1679*100):1 =

167900:1 = 167900

Now we have: 1679 is what percent of 1 = 167900

Question: 1679 is what percent of 1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1679}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1}(1).

{x\%}={1679}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1}{1679}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1679}{1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {167900\%}

Therefore, {1679} is {167900\%} of {1}.