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Solution for 42 is what percent of 162:

42:162*100 =

(42*100):162 =

4200:162 = 25.93

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 162 = 25.93

Question: 42 is what percent of 162?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 162 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={162}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={162}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{162}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{162}

\Rightarrow{x} = {25.93\%}

Therefore, {42} is {25.93\%} of {162}.

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Solution for 162 is what percent of 42:

162:42*100 =

(162*100):42 =

16200:42 = 385.71

Now we have: 162 is what percent of 42 = 385.71

Question: 162 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={162}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={162}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{162}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{162}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {385.71\%}

Therefore, {162} is {385.71\%} of {42}.