Solution for 42 is what percent of 3402:

42:3402*100 =

(42*100):3402 =

4200:3402 = 1.23

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 3402 = 1.23

Question: 42 is what percent of 3402?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 3402 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={3402}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={3402}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{3402}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{3402}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.23\%}

Therefore, {42} is {1.23\%} of {3402}.


What Percent Of Table For 42


Solution for 3402 is what percent of 42:

3402:42*100 =

(3402*100):42 =

340200:42 = 8100

Now we have: 3402 is what percent of 42 = 8100

Question: 3402 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={3402}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={3402}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{3402}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{3402}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {8100\%}

Therefore, {3402} is {8100\%} of {42}.