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Solution for 1 is what percent of 0.68:

1:0.68*100 =

(1*100):0.68 =

100:0.68 = 147.05882352941

Now we have: 1 is what percent of 0.68 = 147.05882352941

Question: 1 is what percent of 0.68?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 0.68 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={0.68}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={0.68}(1).

{x\%}={1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{0.68}{1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1}{0.68}

\Rightarrow{x} = {147.05882352941\%}

Therefore, {1} is {147.05882352941\%} of {0.68}.

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Solution for 0.68 is what percent of 1:

0.68:1*100 =

(0.68*100):1 =

68:1 = 68

Now we have: 0.68 is what percent of 1 = 68

Question: 0.68 is what percent of 1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={0.68}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1}(1).

{x\%}={0.68}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1}{0.68}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{0.68}{1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {68\%}

Therefore, {0.68} is {68\%} of {1}.