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Solution for 1 is what percent of 236:

1:236*100 =

(1*100):236 =

100:236 = 0.42

Now we have: 1 is what percent of 236 = 0.42

Question: 1 is what percent of 236?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 236 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={236}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={236}(1).

{x\%}={1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{236}{1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1}{236}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.42\%}

Therefore, {1} is {0.42\%} of {236}.

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Solution for 236 is what percent of 1:

236:1*100 =

(236*100):1 =

23600:1 = 23600

Now we have: 236 is what percent of 1 = 23600

Question: 236 is what percent of 1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={236}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1}(1).

{x\%}={236}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1}{236}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{236}{1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {23600\%}

Therefore, {236} is {23600\%} of {1}.