Solution for 1 is what percent of 286:

1:286*100 =

(1*100):286 =

100:286 = 0.35

Now we have: 1 is what percent of 286 = 0.35

Question: 1 is what percent of 286?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 286 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={286}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={286}(1).

{x\%}={1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{286}{1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1}{286}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.35\%}

Therefore, {1} is {0.35\%} of {286}.

Solution for 286 is what percent of 1:

286:1*100 =

(286*100):1 =

28600:1 = 28600

Now we have: 286 is what percent of 1 = 28600

Question: 286 is what percent of 1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={286}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1}(1).

{x\%}={286}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1}{286}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{286}{1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {28600\%}

Therefore, {286} is {28600\%} of {1}.