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Solution for 1508 is what percent of 2600:

1508:2600*100 =

(1508*100):2600 =

150800:2600 = 58

Now we have: 1508 is what percent of 2600 = 58

Question: 1508 is what percent of 2600?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 2600 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={2600}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1508}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={2600}(1).

{x\%}={1508}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{2600}{1508}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1508}{2600}

\Rightarrow{x} = {58\%}

Therefore, {1508} is {58\%} of {2600}.

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Solution for 2600 is what percent of 1508:

2600:1508*100 =

(2600*100):1508 =

260000:1508 = 172.41

Now we have: 2600 is what percent of 1508 = 172.41

Question: 2600 is what percent of 1508?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1508 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1508}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={2600}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1508}(1).

{x\%}={2600}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1508}{2600}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{2600}{1508}

\Rightarrow{x} = {172.41\%}

Therefore, {2600} is {172.41\%} of {1508}.