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Solution for 160000 is what percent of 320000:

160000:320000*100 =

(160000*100):320000 =

16000000:320000 = 50

Now we have: 160000 is what percent of 320000 = 50

Question: 160000 is what percent of 320000?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 320000 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={320000}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={160000}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={320000}(1).

{x\%}={160000}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{320000}{160000}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{160000}{320000}

\Rightarrow{x} = {50\%}

Therefore, {160000} is {50\%} of {320000}.

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Solution for 320000 is what percent of 160000:

320000:160000*100 =

(320000*100):160000 =

32000000:160000 = 200

Now we have: 320000 is what percent of 160000 = 200

Question: 320000 is what percent of 160000?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 160000 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={160000}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={320000}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={160000}(1).

{x\%}={320000}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{160000}{320000}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{320000}{160000}

\Rightarrow{x} = {200\%}

Therefore, {320000} is {200\%} of {160000}.