Solution for 1680 is what percent of 4200:

1680:4200*100 =

(1680*100):4200 =

168000:4200 = 40

Now we have: 1680 is what percent of 4200 = 40

Question: 1680 is what percent of 4200?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 4200 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={4200}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1680}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={4200}(1).

{x\%}={1680}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{4200}{1680}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1680}{4200}

\Rightarrow{x} = {40\%}

Therefore, {1680} is {40\%} of {4200}.


What Percent Of Table For 1680


Solution for 4200 is what percent of 1680:

4200:1680*100 =

(4200*100):1680 =

420000:1680 = 250

Now we have: 4200 is what percent of 1680 = 250

Question: 4200 is what percent of 1680?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1680 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1680}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={4200}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1680}(1).

{x\%}={4200}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1680}{4200}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{4200}{1680}

\Rightarrow{x} = {250\%}

Therefore, {4200} is {250\%} of {1680}.