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Solution for 38 is what percent of 1550:

38:1550*100 =

(38*100):1550 =

3800:1550 = 2.45

Now we have: 38 is what percent of 1550 = 2.45

Question: 38 is what percent of 1550?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1550 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1550}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={38}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1550}(1).

{x\%}={38}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1550}{38}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{38}{1550}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.45\%}

Therefore, {38} is {2.45\%} of {1550}.

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Solution for 1550 is what percent of 38:

1550:38*100 =

(1550*100):38 =

155000:38 = 4078.95

Now we have: 1550 is what percent of 38 = 4078.95

Question: 1550 is what percent of 38?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 38 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={38}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1550}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={38}(1).

{x\%}={1550}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{38}{1550}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1550}{38}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4078.95\%}

Therefore, {1550} is {4078.95\%} of {38}.