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Solution for 42 is what percent of 156:

42:156*100 =

(42*100):156 =

4200:156 = 26.92

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 156 = 26.92

Question: 42 is what percent of 156?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 156 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={156}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={156}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{156}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{156}

\Rightarrow{x} = {26.92\%}

Therefore, {42} is {26.92\%} of {156}.

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Solution for 156 is what percent of 42:

156:42*100 =

(156*100):42 =

15600:42 = 371.43

Now we have: 156 is what percent of 42 = 371.43

Question: 156 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={156}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={156}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{156}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{156}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {371.43\%}

Therefore, {156} is {371.43\%} of {42}.