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Solution for 42 is what percent of 2716:

42:2716*100 =

(42*100):2716 =

4200:2716 = 1.55

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 2716 = 1.55

Question: 42 is what percent of 2716?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 2716 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={2716}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={2716}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{2716}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{2716}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.55\%}

Therefore, {42} is {1.55\%} of {2716}.

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Solution for 2716 is what percent of 42:

2716:42*100 =

(2716*100):42 =

271600:42 = 6466.67

Now we have: 2716 is what percent of 42 = 6466.67

Question: 2716 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={2716}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={2716}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{2716}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{2716}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {6466.67\%}

Therefore, {2716} is {6466.67\%} of {42}.