Solution for 42 is what percent of 316:

42:316*100 =

(42*100):316 =

4200:316 = 13.29

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 316 = 13.29

Question: 42 is what percent of 316?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 316 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={316}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={316}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{316}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{316}

\Rightarrow{x} = {13.29\%}

Therefore, {42} is {13.29\%} of {316}.

Solution for 316 is what percent of 42:

316:42*100 =

(316*100):42 =

31600:42 = 752.38

Now we have: 316 is what percent of 42 = 752.38

Question: 316 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={316}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={316}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{316}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{316}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {752.38\%}

Therefore, {316} is {752.38\%} of {42}.