Solution for 42 is what percent of 378:

42:378*100 =

(42*100):378 =

4200:378 = 11.11

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 378 = 11.11

Question: 42 is what percent of 378?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 378 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={378}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={378}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{378}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{378}

\Rightarrow{x} = {11.11\%}

Therefore, {42} is {11.11\%} of {378}.

Solution for 378 is what percent of 42:

378:42*100 =

(378*100):42 =

37800:42 = 900

Now we have: 378 is what percent of 42 = 900

Question: 378 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={378}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={378}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{378}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{378}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {900\%}

Therefore, {378} is {900\%} of {42}.