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Solution for 42 is what percent of 672:

42:672*100 =

(42*100):672 =

4200:672 = 6.25

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 672 = 6.25

Question: 42 is what percent of 672?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 672 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={672}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={672}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{672}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{672}

\Rightarrow{x} = {6.25\%}

Therefore, {42} is {6.25\%} of {672}.

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• 42 is what percent of 26 = 161.54
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• 42 is what percent of 29 = 144.83
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• 42 is what percent of 31 = 135.48
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Solution for 672 is what percent of 42:

672:42*100 =

(672*100):42 =

67200:42 = 1600

Now we have: 672 is what percent of 42 = 1600

Question: 672 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={672}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={672}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{672}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{672}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1600\%}

Therefore, {672} is {1600\%} of {42}.