#### Solution for 42.56 is what percent of 150:

42.56:150*100 =

(42.56*100):150 =

4256:150 = 28.373333333333

Now we have: 42.56 is what percent of 150 = 28.373333333333

Question: 42.56 is what percent of 150?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 150 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={150}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42.56}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={150}(1).

{x\%}={42.56}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{150}{42.56}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42.56}{150}

\Rightarrow{x} = {28.373333333333\%}

Therefore, {42.56} is {28.373333333333\%} of {150}.

#### Solution for 150 is what percent of 42.56:

150:42.56*100 =

(150*100):42.56 =

15000:42.56 = 352.44360902256

Now we have: 150 is what percent of 42.56 = 352.44360902256

Question: 150 is what percent of 42.56?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42.56 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42.56}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={150}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42.56}(1).

{x\%}={150}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42.56}{150}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{150}{42.56}

\Rightarrow{x} = {352.44360902256\%}

Therefore, {150} is {352.44360902256\%} of {42.56}.

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