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Solution for .008 is what percent of 42:

.008:42*100 =

(.008*100):42 =

0.8:42 = 0.02

Now we have: .008 is what percent of 42 = 0.02

Question: .008 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.008}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={.008}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{.008}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.008}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.02\%}

Therefore, {.008} is {0.02\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of .008:

42:.008*100 =

(42*100):.008 =

4200:.008 = 525000

Now we have: 42 is what percent of .008 = 525000

Question: 42 is what percent of .008?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .008 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.008}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.008}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.008}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{.008}

\Rightarrow{x} = {525000\%}

Therefore, {42} is {525000\%} of {.008}.