Solution for .32 is what percent of 42:

.32:42*100 =

(.32*100):42 =

32:42 = 0.76

Now we have: .32 is what percent of 42 = 0.76

Question: .32 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.32}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={.32}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{.32}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.32}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.76\%}

Therefore, {.32} is {0.76\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For .32


Solution for 42 is what percent of .32:

42:.32*100 =

(42*100):.32 =

4200:.32 = 13125

Now we have: 42 is what percent of .32 = 13125

Question: 42 is what percent of .32?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .32 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.32}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.32}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.32}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{.32}

\Rightarrow{x} = {13125\%}

Therefore, {42} is {13125\%} of {.32}.