Solution for 150 is what percent of 42:

150:42*100 =

(150*100):42 =

15000:42 = 357.14

Now we have: 150 is what percent of 42 = 357.14

Question: 150 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={150}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={150}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{150}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{150}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {357.14\%}

Therefore, {150} is {357.14\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 150


Solution for 42 is what percent of 150:

42:150*100 =

(42*100):150 =

4200:150 = 28

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 150 = 28

Question: 42 is what percent of 150?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 150 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={150}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={150}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{150}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{150}

\Rightarrow{x} = {28\%}

Therefore, {42} is {28\%} of {150}.