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Solution for 158 is what percent of 42:

158:42*100 =

(158*100):42 =

15800:42 = 376.19

Now we have: 158 is what percent of 42 = 376.19

Question: 158 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={158}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={158}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{158}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{158}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {376.19\%}

Therefore, {158} is {376.19\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 158:

42:158*100 =

(42*100):158 =

4200:158 = 26.58

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 158 = 26.58

Question: 42 is what percent of 158?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 158 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={158}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={158}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{158}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{158}

\Rightarrow{x} = {26.58\%}

Therefore, {42} is {26.58\%} of {158}.