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Solution for 3122 is what percent of 42:

3122:42*100 =

(3122*100):42 =

312200:42 = 7433.33

Now we have: 3122 is what percent of 42 = 7433.33

Question: 3122 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={3122}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={3122}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{3122}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{3122}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {7433.33\%}

Therefore, {3122} is {7433.33\%} of {42}.

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• 3122 is what percent of 41 = 7614.63
• 3122 is what percent of 42 = 7433.33
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• 3122 is what percent of 100 = 3122

Solution for 42 is what percent of 3122:

42:3122*100 =

(42*100):3122 =

4200:3122 = 1.35

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 3122 = 1.35

Question: 42 is what percent of 3122?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 3122 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={3122}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={3122}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{3122}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{3122}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.35\%}

Therefore, {42} is {1.35\%} of {3122}.