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Solution for 3275 is what percent of 42:

3275:42*100 =

(3275*100):42 =

327500:42 = 7797.62

Now we have: 3275 is what percent of 42 = 7797.62

Question: 3275 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={3275}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={3275}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{3275}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{3275}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {7797.62\%}

Therefore, {3275} is {7797.62\%} of {42}.

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• 3275 is what percent of 100 = 3275

Solution for 42 is what percent of 3275:

42:3275*100 =

(42*100):3275 =

4200:3275 = 1.28

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 3275 = 1.28

Question: 42 is what percent of 3275?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 3275 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={3275}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={3275}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{3275}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{3275}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.28\%}

Therefore, {42} is {1.28\%} of {3275}.