Solution for 6.42 is what percent of 1:

6.42:1*100 =

(6.42*100):1 =

642:1 = 642

Now we have: 6.42 is what percent of 1 = 642

Question: 6.42 is what percent of 1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={6.42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1}(1).

{x\%}={6.42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1}{6.42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{6.42}{1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {642\%}

Therefore, {6.42} is {642\%} of {1}.


What Percent Of Table For 6.42


Solution for 1 is what percent of 6.42:

1:6.42*100 =

(1*100):6.42 =

100:6.42 = 15.576323987539

Now we have: 1 is what percent of 6.42 = 15.576323987539

Question: 1 is what percent of 6.42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 6.42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={6.42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={6.42}(1).

{x\%}={1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{6.42}{1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1}{6.42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {15.576323987539\%}

Therefore, {1} is {15.576323987539\%} of {6.42}.