Solution for 636 is what percent of 42:

636:42*100 =

(636*100):42 =

63600:42 = 1514.29

Now we have: 636 is what percent of 42 = 1514.29

Question: 636 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={636}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={636}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{636}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{636}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1514.29\%}

Therefore, {636} is {1514.29\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 636


Solution for 42 is what percent of 636:

42:636*100 =

(42*100):636 =

4200:636 = 6.6

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 636 = 6.6

Question: 42 is what percent of 636?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 636 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={636}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={636}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{636}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{636}

\Rightarrow{x} = {6.6\%}

Therefore, {42} is {6.6\%} of {636}.