Solution for 642 is what percent of 42:

642:42*100 =

(642*100):42 =

64200:42 = 1528.57

Now we have: 642 is what percent of 42 = 1528.57

Question: 642 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={642}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={642}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{642}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{642}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1528.57\%}

Therefore, {642} is {1528.57\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 642


Solution for 42 is what percent of 642:

42:642*100 =

(42*100):642 =

4200:642 = 6.54

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 642 = 6.54

Question: 42 is what percent of 642?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 642 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={642}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={642}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{642}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{642}

\Rightarrow{x} = {6.54\%}

Therefore, {42} is {6.54\%} of {642}.