Solution for What is 42 percent of 1.08:

42 percent *1.08 =

(42:100)*1.08 =

(42*1.08):100 =

45.36:100 = 0.4536

Now we have: 42 percent of 1.08 = 0.4536

Question: What is 42 percent of 1.08?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: Our output value is 1.08.

Step 2: We represent the unknown value with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1 above,{1.08}={100\%}.

Step 4: Similarly, {x}={42\%}.

Step 5: This results in a pair of simple equations:

{1.08}={100\%}(1).

{x}={42\%}(2).

Step 6: By dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and noting that both the RHS (right hand side) of both
equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{1.08}{x}=\frac{100\%}{42\%}

Step 7: Again, the reciprocal of both sides gives

\frac{x}{1.08}=\frac{42}{100}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.4536}

Therefore, {42\%} of {1.08} is {0.4536}


Percentage Of Table For 1.08

Percentage of
Difference

Solution for What is 1.08 percent of 42:

1.08 percent *42 =

(1.08:100)*42 =

(1.08*42):100 =

45.36:100 = 0.4536

Now we have: 1.08 percent of 42 = 0.4536

Question: What is 1.08 percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: Our output value is 42.

Step 2: We represent the unknown value with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1 above,{42}={100\%}.

Step 4: Similarly, {x}={1.08\%}.

Step 5: This results in a pair of simple equations:

{42}={100\%}(1).

{x}={1.08\%}(2).

Step 6: By dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and noting that both the RHS (right hand side) of both
equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{42}{x}=\frac{100\%}{1.08\%}

Step 7: Again, the reciprocal of both sides gives

\frac{x}{42}=\frac{1.08}{100}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.4536}

Therefore, {1.08\%} of {42} is {0.4536}