Solution for What is 42 percent of 1.58:

42 percent *1.58 =

(42:100)*1.58 =

(42*1.58):100 =

66.36:100 = 0.6636

Now we have: 42 percent of 1.58 = 0.6636

Question: What is 42 percent of 1.58?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: Our output value is 1.58.

Step 2: We represent the unknown value with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1 above,{1.58}={100\%}.

Step 4: Similarly, {x}={42\%}.

Step 5: This results in a pair of simple equations:

{1.58}={100\%}(1).

{x}={42\%}(2).

Step 6: By dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and noting that both the RHS (right hand side) of both
equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{1.58}{x}=\frac{100\%}{42\%}

Step 7: Again, the reciprocal of both sides gives

\frac{x}{1.58}=\frac{42}{100}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.6636}

Therefore, {42\%} of {1.58} is {0.6636}


Percentage Of Table For 1.58

Percentage of
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Solution for What is 1.58 percent of 42:

1.58 percent *42 =

(1.58:100)*42 =

(1.58*42):100 =

66.36:100 = 0.6636

Now we have: 1.58 percent of 42 = 0.6636

Question: What is 1.58 percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: Our output value is 42.

Step 2: We represent the unknown value with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1 above,{42}={100\%}.

Step 4: Similarly, {x}={1.58\%}.

Step 5: This results in a pair of simple equations:

{42}={100\%}(1).

{x}={1.58\%}(2).

Step 6: By dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and noting that both the RHS (right hand side) of both
equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{42}{x}=\frac{100\%}{1.58\%}

Step 7: Again, the reciprocal of both sides gives

\frac{x}{42}=\frac{1.58}{100}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.6636}

Therefore, {1.58\%} of {42} is {0.6636}