Solution for -6 is what percent of 42:

-6:42*100 =

(-6*100):42 =

-600:42 = -14.29

Now we have: -6 is what percent of 42 = -14.29

Question: -6 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={-6}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={-6}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{-6}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{-6}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {-14.29\%}

Therefore, {-6} is {-14.29\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For -6


Solution for 42 is what percent of -6:

42:-6*100 =

(42*100):-6 =

4200:-6 = -700

Now we have: 42 is what percent of -6 = -700

Question: 42 is what percent of -6?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that -6 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={-6}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={-6}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{-6}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{-6}

\Rightarrow{x} = {-700\%}

Therefore, {42} is {-700\%} of {-6}.