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Solution for .0002 is what percent of 40:

.0002:40*100 =

(.0002*100):40 =

0.02:40 = 0.0005

Now we have: .0002 is what percent of 40 = 0.0005

Question: .0002 is what percent of 40?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 40 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={40}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.0002}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={40}(1).

{x\%}={.0002}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{40}{.0002}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.0002}{40}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.0005\%}

Therefore, {.0002} is {0.0005\%} of {40}.

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Solution for 40 is what percent of .0002:

40:.0002*100 =

(40*100):.0002 =

4000:.0002 = 20000000

Now we have: 40 is what percent of .0002 = 20000000

Question: 40 is what percent of .0002?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .0002 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.0002}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={40}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.0002}(1).

{x\%}={40}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.0002}{40}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{40}{.0002}

\Rightarrow{x} = {20000000\%}

Therefore, {40} is {20000000\%} of {.0002}.