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Solution for .0006 is what percent of 32:

.0006:32*100 =

(.0006*100):32 =

0.06:32 = 0.001875

Now we have: .0006 is what percent of 32 = 0.001875

Question: .0006 is what percent of 32?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 32 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={32}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.0006}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={32}(1).

{x\%}={.0006}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{32}{.0006}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.0006}{32}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.001875\%}

Therefore, {.0006} is {0.001875\%} of {32}.

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Solution for 32 is what percent of .0006:

32:.0006*100 =

(32*100):.0006 =

3200:.0006 = 5333333.33

Now we have: 32 is what percent of .0006 = 5333333.33

Question: 32 is what percent of .0006?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .0006 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.0006}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={32}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.0006}(1).

{x\%}={32}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.0006}{32}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{32}{.0006}

\Rightarrow{x} = {5333333.33\%}

Therefore, {32} is {5333333.33\%} of {.0006}.