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Solution for .0016 is what percent of 42:

.0016:42*100 =

(.0016*100):42 =

0.16:42 = 0.0038095238095238

Now we have: .0016 is what percent of 42 = 0.0038095238095238

Question: .0016 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.0016}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={.0016}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{.0016}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.0016}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.0038095238095238\%}

Therefore, {.0016} is {0.0038095238095238\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of .0016:

42:.0016*100 =

(42*100):.0016 =

4200:.0016 = 2625000

Now we have: 42 is what percent of .0016 = 2625000

Question: 42 is what percent of .0016?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .0016 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.0016}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.0016}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.0016}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{.0016}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2625000\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2625000\%} of {.0016}.