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Solution for .0150 is what percent of 42:

.0150:42*100 =

(.0150*100):42 =

1.5:42 = 0.04

Now we have: .0150 is what percent of 42 = 0.04

Question: .0150 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.0150}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={.0150}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{.0150}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.0150}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.04\%}

Therefore, {.0150} is {0.04\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of .0150:

42:.0150*100 =

(42*100):.0150 =

4200:.0150 = 280000

Now we have: 42 is what percent of .0150 = 280000

Question: 42 is what percent of .0150?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .0150 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.0150}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.0150}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.0150}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{.0150}

\Rightarrow{x} = {280000\%}

Therefore, {42} is {280000\%} of {.0150}.