Solution for .152 is what percent of 42:

.152:42*100 =

(.152*100):42 =

15.2:42 = 0.36

Now we have: .152 is what percent of 42 = 0.36

Question: .152 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.152}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={.152}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{.152}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.152}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.36\%}

Therefore, {.152} is {0.36\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For .152


Solution for 42 is what percent of .152:

42:.152*100 =

(42*100):.152 =

4200:.152 = 27631.58

Now we have: 42 is what percent of .152 = 27631.58

Question: 42 is what percent of .152?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .152 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.152}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.152}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.152}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{.152}

\Rightarrow{x} = {27631.58\%}

Therefore, {42} is {27631.58\%} of {.152}.