Solution for .158 is what percent of 42:

.158:42*100 =

(.158*100):42 =

15.8:42 = 0.38

Now we have: .158 is what percent of 42 = 0.38

Question: .158 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.158}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={.158}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{.158}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.158}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.38\%}

Therefore, {.158} is {0.38\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For .158


Solution for 42 is what percent of .158:

42:.158*100 =

(42*100):.158 =

4200:.158 = 26582.28

Now we have: 42 is what percent of .158 = 26582.28

Question: 42 is what percent of .158?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .158 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.158}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.158}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.158}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{.158}

\Rightarrow{x} = {26582.28\%}

Therefore, {42} is {26582.28\%} of {.158}.