Solution for .28 is what percent of 42:

.28:42*100 =

(.28*100):42 =

28:42 = 0.67

Now we have: .28 is what percent of 42 = 0.67

Question: .28 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.28}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={.28}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{.28}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.28}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.67\%}

Therefore, {.28} is {0.67\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For .28


Solution for 42 is what percent of .28:

42:.28*100 =

(42*100):.28 =

4200:.28 = 15000

Now we have: 42 is what percent of .28 = 15000

Question: 42 is what percent of .28?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .28 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.28}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.28}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.28}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{.28}

\Rightarrow{x} = {15000\%}

Therefore, {42} is {15000\%} of {.28}.