Solution for .42 is what percent of 32:

.42:32*100 =

(.42*100):32 =

42:32 = 1.31

Now we have: .42 is what percent of 32 = 1.31

Question: .42 is what percent of 32?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 32 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={32}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={32}(1).

{x\%}={.42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{32}{.42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.42}{32}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.31\%}

Therefore, {.42} is {1.31\%} of {32}.


What Percent Of Table For .42


Solution for 32 is what percent of .42:

32:.42*100 =

(32*100):.42 =

3200:.42 = 7619.05

Now we have: 32 is what percent of .42 = 7619.05

Question: 32 is what percent of .42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={32}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.42}(1).

{x\%}={32}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.42}{32}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{32}{.42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {7619.05\%}

Therefore, {32} is {7619.05\%} of {.42}.