Solution for .6 is what percent of 42:

.6:42*100 =

(.6*100):42 =

60:42 = 1.43

Now we have: .6 is what percent of 42 = 1.43

Question: .6 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.6}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={.6}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{.6}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.6}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.43\%}

Therefore, {.6} is {1.43\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For .6


Solution for 42 is what percent of .6:

42:.6*100 =

(42*100):.6 =

4200:.6 = 7000

Now we have: 42 is what percent of .6 = 7000

Question: 42 is what percent of .6?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .6 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.6}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.6}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.6}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{.6}

\Rightarrow{x} = {7000\%}

Therefore, {42} is {7000\%} of {.6}.