Solution for .958 is what percent of 42:

.958:42*100 =

(.958*100):42 =

95.8:42 = 2.28

Now we have: .958 is what percent of 42 = 2.28

Question: .958 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={.958}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={.958}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{.958}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{.958}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.28\%}

Therefore, {.958} is {2.28\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For .958


Solution for 42 is what percent of .958:

42:.958*100 =

(42*100):.958 =

4200:.958 = 4384.13

Now we have: 42 is what percent of .958 = 4384.13

Question: 42 is what percent of .958?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that .958 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={.958}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={.958}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{.958}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{.958}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4384.13\%}

Therefore, {42} is {4384.13\%} of {.958}.