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Solution for 0.01 is what percent of 32:

0.01:32*100 =

(0.01*100):32 =

1:32 = 0.03125

Now we have: 0.01 is what percent of 32 = 0.03125

Question: 0.01 is what percent of 32?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 32 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={32}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={0.01}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={32}(1).

{x\%}={0.01}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{32}{0.01}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{0.01}{32}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.03125\%}

Therefore, {0.01} is {0.03125\%} of {32}.

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Solution for 32 is what percent of 0.01:

32:0.01*100 =

(32*100):0.01 =

3200:0.01 = 320000

Now we have: 32 is what percent of 0.01 = 320000

Question: 32 is what percent of 0.01?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 0.01 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={0.01}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={32}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={0.01}(1).

{x\%}={32}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{0.01}{32}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{32}{0.01}

\Rightarrow{x} = {320000\%}

Therefore, {32} is {320000\%} of {0.01}.