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Solution for 0.040 is what percent of 42:

0.040:42*100 =

(0.040*100):42 =

4:42 = 0.095238095238095

Now we have: 0.040 is what percent of 42 = 0.095238095238095

Question: 0.040 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={0.040}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={0.040}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{0.040}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{0.040}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.095238095238095\%}

Therefore, {0.040} is {0.095238095238095\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 0.040:

42:0.040*100 =

(42*100):0.040 =

4200:0.040 = 105000

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 0.040 = 105000

Question: 42 is what percent of 0.040?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 0.040 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={0.040}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={0.040}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{0.040}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{0.040}

\Rightarrow{x} = {105000\%}

Therefore, {42} is {105000\%} of {0.040}.