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Solution for 0.052 is what percent of 78:

0.052:78*100 =

(0.052*100):78 =

5.2:78 = 0.066666666666667

Now we have: 0.052 is what percent of 78 = 0.066666666666667

Question: 0.052 is what percent of 78?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 78 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={78}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={0.052}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={78}(1).

{x\%}={0.052}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{78}{0.052}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{0.052}{78}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.066666666666667\%}

Therefore, {0.052} is {0.066666666666667\%} of {78}.

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Solution for 78 is what percent of 0.052:

78:0.052*100 =

(78*100):0.052 =

7800:0.052 = 150000

Now we have: 78 is what percent of 0.052 = 150000

Question: 78 is what percent of 0.052?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 0.052 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={0.052}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={78}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={0.052}(1).

{x\%}={78}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{0.052}{78}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{78}{0.052}

\Rightarrow{x} = {150000\%}

Therefore, {78} is {150000\%} of {0.052}.