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Solution for 0.16 is what percent of 42:

0.16:42*100 =

(0.16*100):42 =

16:42 = 0.38095238095238

Now we have: 0.16 is what percent of 42 = 0.38095238095238

Question: 0.16 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={0.16}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={0.16}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{0.16}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{0.16}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {0.38095238095238\%}

Therefore, {0.16} is {0.38095238095238\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 0.16:

42:0.16*100 =

(42*100):0.16 =

4200:0.16 = 26250

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 0.16 = 26250

Question: 42 is what percent of 0.16?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 0.16 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={0.16}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={0.16}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{0.16}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{0.16}

\Rightarrow{x} = {26250\%}

Therefore, {42} is {26250\%} of {0.16}.