Solution for 0.42 is what percent of 1:

0.42:1*100 =

(0.42*100):1 =

42:1 = 42

Now we have: 0.42 is what percent of 1 = 42

Question: 0.42 is what percent of 1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={0.42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1}(1).

{x\%}={0.42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1}{0.42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{0.42}{1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {42\%}

Therefore, {0.42} is {42\%} of {1}.


What Percent Of Table For 0.42


Solution for 1 is what percent of 0.42:

1:0.42*100 =

(1*100):0.42 =

100:0.42 = 238.09523809524

Now we have: 1 is what percent of 0.42 = 238.09523809524

Question: 1 is what percent of 0.42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 0.42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={0.42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={0.42}(1).

{x\%}={1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{0.42}{1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1}{0.42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {238.09523809524\%}

Therefore, {1} is {238.09523809524\%} of {0.42}.