Solution for 0.46 is what percent of 42:

0.46:42*100 =

(0.46*100):42 =

46:42 = 1.0952380952381

Now we have: 0.46 is what percent of 42 = 1.0952380952381

Question: 0.46 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={0.46}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={0.46}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{0.46}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{0.46}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {1.0952380952381\%}

Therefore, {0.46} is {1.0952380952381\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 0.46


Solution for 42 is what percent of 0.46:

42:0.46*100 =

(42*100):0.46 =

4200:0.46 = 9130.4347826087

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 0.46 = 9130.4347826087

Question: 42 is what percent of 0.46?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 0.46 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={0.46}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={0.46}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{0.46}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{0.46}

\Rightarrow{x} = {9130.4347826087\%}

Therefore, {42} is {9130.4347826087\%} of {0.46}.