Percentage Calculator: 1 is what percent of 42? = 2.38

Solution for 1 is what percent of 42:

1:42*100 =

(1*100):42 =

100:42 = 2.38

Now we have: 1 is what percent of 42 = 2.38

Question: 1 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.38\%}

Therefore, {1} is {2.38\%} of {42}.

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Solution for 42 is what percent of 1:

42:1*100 =

(42*100):1 =

4200:1 = 4200

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1 = 4200

Question: 42 is what percent of 1?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4200\%}

Therefore, {42} is {4200\%} of {1}.

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