Solution for 1. is what percent of 42:

1.:42*100 =

(1.*100):42 =

100:42 = 2.3809523809524

Now we have: 1. is what percent of 42 = 2.3809523809524

Question: 1. is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1.}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1.}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1.}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1.}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.3809523809524\%}

Therefore, {1.} is {2.3809523809524\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1.


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1.:

42:1.*100 =

(42*100):1. =

4200:1. = 4200

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1. = 4200

Question: 42 is what percent of 1.?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1. is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1.}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1.}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1.}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1.}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4200\%}

Therefore, {42} is {4200\%} of {1.}.