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Solution for 1.02 is what percent of 42:

1.02:42*100 =

(1.02*100):42 =

102:42 = 2.4285714285714

Now we have: 1.02 is what percent of 42 = 2.4285714285714

Question: 1.02 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1.02}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1.02}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1.02}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1.02}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.4285714285714\%}

Therefore, {1.02} is {2.4285714285714\%} of {42}.

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• 1.02 is what percent of 41 = 2.49
• 1.02 is what percent of 42 = 2.43
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Solution for 42 is what percent of 1.02:

42:1.02*100 =

(42*100):1.02 =

4200:1.02 = 4117.6470588235

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1.02 = 4117.6470588235

Question: 42 is what percent of 1.02?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1.02 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1.02}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1.02}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1.02}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1.02}

\Rightarrow{x} = {4117.6470588235\%}

Therefore, {42} is {4117.6470588235\%} of {1.02}.