Solution for 1.20 is what percent of 42:

1.20:42*100 =

(1.20*100):42 =

120:42 = 2.8571428571429

Now we have: 1.20 is what percent of 42 = 2.8571428571429

Question: 1.20 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1.20}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1.20}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1.20}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1.20}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2.8571428571429\%}

Therefore, {1.20} is {2.8571428571429\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1.20


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1.20:

42:1.20*100 =

(42*100):1.20 =

4200:1.20 = 3500

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1.20 = 3500

Question: 42 is what percent of 1.20?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1.20 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1.20}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1.20}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1.20}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1.20}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3500\%}

Therefore, {42} is {3500\%} of {1.20}.