Solution for 1.38 is what percent of 42:

1.38:42*100 =

(1.38*100):42 =

138:42 = 3.2857142857143

Now we have: 1.38 is what percent of 42 = 3.2857142857143

Question: 1.38 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1.38}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1.38}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1.38}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1.38}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3.2857142857143\%}

Therefore, {1.38} is {3.2857142857143\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1.38


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1.38:

42:1.38*100 =

(42*100):1.38 =

4200:1.38 = 3043.4782608696

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1.38 = 3043.4782608696

Question: 42 is what percent of 1.38?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1.38 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1.38}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1.38}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1.38}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1.38}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3043.4782608696\%}

Therefore, {42} is {3043.4782608696\%} of {1.38}.