Solution for 1.50 is what percent of 42:

1.50:42*100 =

(1.50*100):42 =

150:42 = 3.5714285714286

Now we have: 1.50 is what percent of 42 = 3.5714285714286

Question: 1.50 is what percent of 42?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 42 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={42}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={1.50}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={42}(1).

{x\%}={1.50}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{42}{1.50}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{1.50}{42}

\Rightarrow{x} = {3.5714285714286\%}

Therefore, {1.50} is {3.5714285714286\%} of {42}.


What Percent Of Table For 1.50


Solution for 42 is what percent of 1.50:

42:1.50*100 =

(42*100):1.50 =

4200:1.50 = 2800

Now we have: 42 is what percent of 1.50 = 2800

Question: 42 is what percent of 1.50?

Percentage solution with steps:

Step 1: We make the assumption that 1.50 is 100% since it is our output value.

Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with {x}.

Step 3: From step 1, it follows that {100\%}={1.50}.

Step 4: In the same vein, {x\%}={42}.

Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:

{100\%}={1.50}(1).

{x\%}={42}(2).

Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have

\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{1.50}{42}

Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields

\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{1.50}

\Rightarrow{x} = {2800\%}

Therefore, {42} is {2800\%} of {1.50}.